WikiDiscuss

WikiDiscuss


Esther

posts: 84

lagejyspa wrote:

> Re: Esther
>
> Author: lagejyspa
>
>
>> {ji'o la xeGES. no'u lo selfu be le nolraitru zi'e poi bandu le ninmu
>> ku'o}: Is {no'u} meant to be {po'u}? Otherwise, why is it {la vacTIC.
>> po'u le noltruni'u} but {la xeGES. no'u lo selfu be le nolraitru}?
>> Also, here and elsewhere, {no'u/po'u lo} could be replaced by just
>> {noi/poi}.
>>
>
> Yes, I did vacillate somewhat between using noi/poi vs. no'u/po'u. Indeed, in several places I literally changed it back and forth several times. My feelings are in general, with Hebrew phrases like "melex axacyveroc" (King Ahasuerus), as a title, "no'u" conveyed it best. Conversely, when the Hebrew uses "axacyveroc hamelex" (Ahasuerus, the king), "po'u" conveys the sense of _this_ Ahasuerus, as opposed to the garbage man of the same name. But I haven't been consistent. As to poi vs. po'u, I basically use "poi" iff the Hebrew "asher" (which, that) appears.
>
> Here, it's "Hegeh, the servant of the king, (a) guardian of the women." As such, I'm gonna change it to "la xeGES. po'u le selfu be le nolraitru zi'e no'u lo bandu be le ninmu".
>
Since there isn't that much difference in the Hebrew between the noun
and the participle (well, I mean, they're the same word), so you could
just as well say {la xeGES. noi selfu le nolraitru zi'enoi bandu le
ninmu}. I've gone with "noi" because it doesn't seem restrictive to me
("wait, WHICH Hege are we talking about...?"). Though actually {noi le
selfu be le nolraitru zi'enoi bandu le ninmu} is probably better for the
Hebrew, since the "eunuch of the King" is not a verb participle.

>> {jai stika lo ka .ebu .e le .ebu citni'u cu zvati le zdani be loi
>> ninmu kei lo xamgu}: Not sure what {stika} means here.
>>
>
> The Hebrew literally means "He changed her and her maidens for the good, the house of the women". This has caused problems for translators, but most agree there is an elision here, and that it means something like "He switched them to a better place in the house of the women." So in my lojban, he modified their property of their being in the house of woman by a beneficial amount.
>
"To a better place in the house" makes sense literally too... "to the
good places of the house of the women".

I'm blanking on an example here, and maybe I'm just plain wrong, but
can't the verb (vayishaneha) also mean "to treat preferentially"? i.e.
he treated her and her maids preferentially, to the best the harem had
to offer.

~mark